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Interviews II: Markets, Trading Games and the Final Round · Karier
12Commodities and Energy
Curve shapes and what they say about storage, spreads between products and between places, seasonal curves and power, and the options that a physical asset really is. Every level here is invented for the arithmetic, except where a box gives a date.
Question 12.1 ★ Trader, QT, Analyst • any • junior
Crude oil is 70 in the spot market, and the one-year future is 74. What is this curve shape called? You buy the future. If the spot price is still 70 in a year, what do you make or lose per barrel?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.1.
It is contango, and you lose $4 a barrel.
The future has to converge to spot by expiry. If spot stays at 70, the future falls from 74 to 70.
Classic wrong answer. Saying “spot did not move, so I made nothing.” You did not hold spot. Your return is the change in the future, and the slope of the curve is part of it.
Question 12.2 ★ Trader, QT, QR • any • junior
A commodity costs 80 today, the rate is 5%, and storage costs 4 for the year, paid at the end. What is the highest the one-year future can be? It trades at 92, and you have access to storage. What do you do, and how much do you lock in?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.2.
The upper limit is 88. At 92, buy spot, store it and sell the future, locking in $4 a unit.
The full cost of carry is . Borrow 80 and buy; in a year, deliver against the future at 92, pay 84 on the loan and 4 for storage.
Classic wrong answer. Saying the fair value is 88. It is a ceiling. With inventory scarce, the future can sit far below it.
Question 12.3 ★ Trader, Analyst, QT • hedge fund, bank • junior
Crude is $80 a barrel, gasoline $2.40 a gallon, heating oil $2.70 a gallon, and a barrel holds 42 gallons. What is the 3:2:1 crack spread per barrel of crude? Who is naturally long it?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.3.
It is $25 a barrel. Refiners are naturally long it.
Three barrels of crude cost 240. They yield two barrels of gasoline at each, and one of heating oil at . So the products bring 315, a margin of 75 on three barrels.
Classic wrong answer. Forgetting the units. Products quote per gallon, crude per barrel. Subtract before converting, and you get nonsense.
Question 12.4 ★ Trader, QT • hedge fund, bank • junior
Front-month crude is 72, and the second month is 70. Each contract is 1,000 barrels. You buy the front and sell the second. What do you make if both rise by $5? If the front rises $3 and the second $2? What view are you expressing?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.4.
You make nothing on the parallel move, and $1,000 on the second. You are betting on tighter supply, meaning a deeper backwardation.
The position only sees the spread, which goes from 2 to 3. That is $1 on 1,000 barrels.
Classic wrong answer. Thinking this position is long oil. It has no outright exposure to a parallel move, though front contracts tend to move more than back ones, so the spread is not fully neutral in practice.
Question 12.5 ★ Trader, Analyst, QT • bank, hedge fund • junior
Power trades at $60 per MWh and gas at $5 per MMBtu, and a plant has a heat rate of 7 MMBtu per MWh. What is the spark spread? How much does a 100 MW plant earn in a 16-hour block? With carbon at $30 a tonne and 0.4 tonnes per MWh, what is the clean spark spread?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.5.
The spark spread is $25 per MWh, which is $40,000 for the block, and the clean spark spread is $13.
Fuel is , so . Power is MWh. Carbon is .
Classic wrong answer. Treating that as profit. It leaves out start-up cost, maintenance and the fact that the plant may not run for every hour.
Question 12.6 ★★ QR, Trader, QT • any • junior, experienced
A metal has spot 70 and a one-year future at 66. The rate is 4% and storage costs 2% of value a year, both continuous. What convenience yield does that imply? What does the number mean, and when would it be high?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.6.
It is about 11.9% a year.
With , we have .
The convenience yield is the value of having the metal rather than a promise of it: you can keep a plant running and meet a sudden order. It is high when inventories are low, as a shortage makes the last ton worth a lot. It is close to zero when the warehouses are full.
Classic wrong answer. Reading the backwardation as a forecast that the price will fall by 4. A curve this shape is a price for holding physical stock now. It does not by itself say where the spot will go.
Question 12.7 ★★ Trader, QR, QT • any • junior, experienced
Spot is 50, the rate is 4% and storage is $1 a month. How wide can the one-month contango be? Is there a matching limit on how far backwardation can go? Why or why not?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.7.
The one-month contango cannot go above about 1.17, given access to storage. Backwardation has no such limit.
Full carry is . Above that, you buy, store and sell forward at a profit.
Backwardation would need the reverse: sell the metal, buy the future, and take delivery later. Only someone who owns inventory can do that, and a holder who needs the stuff to run a plant will not. So nothing forces it, and the curve is capped on the contango side and open on the other.
There are two exceptions. Limits to the top vanish if storage is full, as nobody can do the carry trade. And a non-storable, such as power, has no carry at all, so neither bound applies.
Classic wrong answer. Assuming the two sides are symmetric because the formula looks symmetric. A short physical position cannot be built from nothing, so cost-of-carry is an inequality.
Question 12.8 ★★ QR, QT, Trader • hedge fund, bank • junior, experienced
Commodity A’s curve slopes up by 1% a month, forever, and its spot price never moves. Gas has a purely seasonal curve: each calendar month has a price of , and each contract expires exactly at that price. What does a long position that rolls monthly earn in a year in each? How much of the gas curve’s slope is a real return?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.8.
Commodity A loses about 11.3% in a year. Gas earns exactly zero, however steep its curve looks month to month.
Commodity A. Each month the contract you hold starts 1% above spot and falls to it. So the monthly return is , and the year gives of loss. It is a real return because the expected spot does not rise.
Gas. The forward for each month sits at that month’s price and expires there. You earn nothing on any contract, as it never moves. The curve’s slope is entirely the calendar, and buying the next contract in a rising part is not a cost: it will be worth the same price when it expires.
Over a year, the front-to-next slopes also sum to zero, since the seasons repeat.
So a naive roll yield, front over second, would call gas a good carry in winter and a poor one in summer. That is wrong, and to measure carry you compare the same calendar month across years.
Classic wrong answer. Sorting commodities by front-to-second slope and calling the top the high-carry names. In seasonal markets you are sorting by the date on the calendar.
Question 12.9 ★★ Trader, QT, QR • hedge fund, bank • junior
An airline will buy 10 million gallons of jet fuel in three months and hedges with heating oil futures of 42,000 gallons each. The monthly volatility of jet fuel price changes is 3%, that of heating oil is 3.5%, and their correlation is 0.8. What hedge ratio and how many contracts? How much of the variance does it remove?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.9.
The hedge ratio is 0.686, or about 163 contracts, and it removes 64% of the variance.
The minimum-variance ratio is . On 10 million gallons, that is 6.857 million gallons of heating oil, or contracts.
The variance left is . So the standard deviation drops only by 40%. A correlation of 0.8 sounds high, but it leaves 60% of the risk.
Classic wrong answer. Using one contract per 42,000 gallons, a ratio of 1. That takes on more heating oil risk than the airline has jet fuel risk, and the leftover variance would be larger than at the minimum.
Follow-up. Why would the airline hedge with heating oil at all? It trades with far more liquidity than a jet fuel contract does. The price is the basis risk it keeps.
Question 12.10 ★★ QR, Trader • hedge fund, bank • experienced
A future with time to maturity has volatility . What is the volatility of the one-month future today, and of the one-year future? What average volatility would you use for a one-year option on the one-year future? For a one-month option on the one-month future? What is the economic story?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.10.
The one-month future has 50.8% volatility today, and the one-year future has 8.1%. The average for the one-year option is 29.7%, and for the one-month option 55.3%.
Spot volatility is at . So and .
An option on a future to expiry takes the average variance as runs from to 0:
At , . At , .
This is the Samuelson effect. A shock to spot gets largely undone by supply responses in time, so a far contract hardly reacts. As it gets close to expiry, it starts to feel each shock. That makes the mean-reversion rate and volatility level visible in the curve of implied volatilities.
Classic wrong answer. Quoting today’s volatility of the one-year future, 8.1%, for the one-year option. Over the year that contract ages into the front, so that number is far too low.
Question 12.11 ★★ QT, QR, Trader • hedge fund, bank • junior, experienced
A one-month at-the-money option on a future at 70, with 40% volatility, is settled against the average of the price over the whole month. About what is it worth, and what is a plain European option worth? Why do so many commodity options settle this way?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.11.
The averaged option is worth about 1.86, against about 3.22 for the European. So it costs about 58%.
Averaging over the whole life cuts the effective variance to a third. So the effective volatility is on the same time. With the at-the-money rule, , and Black’s formula gives 1.86. The plain option has , and Black’s gives 3.22.
Commodity consumers buy and sell the physical all through a month. So an average price is what they actually pay. And it makes the settlement hard to manipulate, as nobody can push one print to swing the outcome.
Classic wrong answer. Using or . A running average’s variance is , and that comes from integrating .
Follow-up. What if the average is over 22 daily fixings? The variance factor is , slightly above , so the volatility is about 23.9%.
Question 12.12 ★★ Trader, Analyst, QT • hedge fund, bank • junior, experienced
US crude costs 73 at the port. A cargo takes 30 days to reach Europe, and freight costs $3.50 a barrel. The European benchmark for delivery in 30 days is 77. Financing is 5%. Is the arbitrage open? How do you lock it in, and what risk remains?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.12.
It is just open: about 20 cents a barrel, before quality, port and other fees.
Sale minus purchase minus freight: . Financing the cargo costs , which leaves 0.20.
To lock it in, buy the cargo, and sell the European benchmark for the delivery date. The US price risk is gone as soon as you buy. Freight is fixed by booking the ship or by a freight contract.
What remains.
- Quality: the crude grade may not fetch the benchmark price.
- The benchmark’s differential against the actual sale may change.
- Timing: delay, demurrage, and weather. The hedge’s date is fixed, and the ship’s arrival is not.
- Execution: if many ships head for the same port, the local price at delivery falls. The arbitrage closes on its own.
Classic wrong answer. Treating a futures-to-futures spread as if it were a profit. The two contracts are for different places. The difference means nothing until you’ve paid to move the barrel.
Question 12.13 ★★ Trader, QT, Analyst • bank, hedge fund • junior, experienced
A power market has four sets of plants: wind 30 MW at $0, nuclear 40 MW at $10, combined-cycle gas 40 MW at $40 and peakers 20 MW at $90. What is the price at demand of 20, 60, 100 and 115 MW? What happens at 140? Wind capacity doubles to 60 MW. What happens to the prices? Why can power prices go negative?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.13.
The prices are $0, $10, $40 and $90 at 20, 60, 100 and 115 MW. At 140 demand cannot be met, so the price goes to whatever cap applies, or some load is cut. With 60 MW of wind, the prices fall to $0, $0, $10 and $40.
Stack the plants by marginal cost, and the marginal plant sets the price. Capacity up to the demand point: 30, 70, 110, 130. So 20 MW is within wind, 60 within nuclear, 100 within gas and 115 within peakers.
With 30 more MW at zero cost, all the stack shifts right: 60, 100, 140, 160. So 100 falls to nuclear and 115 to gas. That is the merit-order effect. More zero-cost supply lowers prices in general, including prices earned by the wind itself.
Negative prices. Power can’t be stored at scale, and supply must equal demand each moment. Some plants pay to stay on, because shutting down and restarting is costly. And subsidised wind and solar may earn more than the negative price, so they keep producing. So they will bid below zero to keep running, and the price clears there.
As of November 2026 — Negative hours in Germany
The German regulator counted negative wholesale prices in 573 hours of 2025 and 457 hours of 2024. Check the latest count before you cite one.
Classic wrong answer. Averaging plant costs. A market with marginal pricing pays every generator the price of the marginal unit, and that’s how the wind and nuclear plants cover their fixed costs.
Follow-up. A baseload forward is 50, and peak is 70, with 80 peak hours and 88 off-peak hours a week. What is off-peak? .
Question 12.14 ★★★ QR, Trader • bank, hedge fund • experienced
The power forward is 40 per MWh and the gas forward is 5 per MMBtu. A plant has a heat rate of 7 MMBtu per MWh. Power volatility is 60%, gas volatility 40%, their correlation 0.5, and the option to run expires in three months. Ignoring discounting, value the option to run for one MWh with Margrabe. What is the intrinsic value, and what is the rest? What happens at a correlation of 0.9? How do you hedge it?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.14.
The option is worth about 6.94 per MWh, of which 5 is intrinsic and 1.94 is time value. At a correlation of 0.9, it falls to about 5.56. Hedge by selling about 0.74 MWh of power and buying about 4.52 MMBtu of gas.
Let the strike leg be . Then Margrabe uses the volatility of the ratio,
with and . So .
At a correlation of 0.9, the ratio’s volatility is 0.297, so the value is mostly intrinsic. And as correlation goes to one with equal volatilities, it is exactly intrinsic.
Hedge. The deltas are on power and on the gas leg. That means MMBtu of gas per MWh. As with any option you are long, you re-hedge by selling high and buying low, which earns the realised spread volatility.
Classic wrong answer. Using power’s volatility alone. It’s the volatility of the spread that matters, so high correlation makes the plant worth less.
Follow-up. What is it worth if power falls to 30? About 1.48: a plant out of the money today is still worth something because it can wait, which is why one does not retire it at the first bad month.
Question 12.15 ★★★ Trader, QR, Risk • hedge fund, bank • junior, experienced
A crude future for physical delivery has one day left. The next month trades at 20. The storage at the delivery point is effectively full. What stops the expiring contract from trading below zero? At what storage cost, per barrel per month, does a price of make sense? Who has to sell at any price?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.15.
Nothing stops it. With storage full, the carry bound fails, and a holder who cannot take delivery must pay somebody to take the contract. A price of with the next month at 20 means storage for the month is worth about $58 a barrel.
If you can store, holds: at a price below that, you buy, store a month and sell the next contract. So the lower limit on the front contract is the next contract less the cost of carry. At a storage cost of $58, .
Normally, is a small number. When capacity is full, it is not a price you can pay at all, so the bound does not exist. So the front is free to go wherever it clears.
Three sets of holders are forced to sell. A long-only fund, including retail products, that has to exit by its roll date. A speculator with no way to take delivery. And anyone whose risk limits require closing the position.
The buyers who can stand the delivery are few and hold storage. They name their price.
As of November 2026 — The day this happened
On 20 April 2020 the expiring May WTI contract settled at , with the next contract at 20.43, a calendar spread of about . The next-widest front-to-second gap in the public daily series from 1985 to 2024 is $8.49.
Classic wrong answer. Saying a price cannot fall below zero because oil has value. The future is a claim to take delivery at one place and date. When you can’t take it, the obligation has a negative value.
Follow-up. Why did it not hit other contracts as hard? They had time. The second month had a whole month in which the storage could clear, and the producers could cut output.
Question 12.16 ★★★ QR, Trader, QD • bank, hedge fund • junior, experienced
A gas storage tank holds one unit and can inject or withdraw one unit a month. The forward curve for five months is 3.00, 2.90, 2.85, 3.40, 3.60, and the tank ends empty. Injection costs 0.02 and withdrawal 0.01. What is the intrinsic value? Then month 5’s price is revealed in month 4, at 4.10 or 3.10 with equal chance. What is the tank worth when you may withdraw in month 4 instead?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.16.
The intrinsic value is 0.72: inject in month 3 and withdraw in month 5. With the reveal in month 4, the tank is worth 0.87, so the option to act later adds 0.15.
Intrinsic. Find the best pair of dates, buy at the earlier and sell at the later. The pair is month 3 at 2.85 and month 5 at 3.60, and the costs are 0.03, so . A single cycle is all that fits: the tank holds one unit, and no other pair adds value on top. Enumeration confirms it.
Extrinsic. You inject in month 3. In month 4, you see month 5’s price, and enumerating every action in every state confirms the plan below.
- At 4.10, wait: you get .
- At 3.10, withdraw at month 4’s price of 3.40: you get .
So the value is . That is a floor at 3.40 on the sale, and the forward at 3.60 is unchanged in expectation.
In practice, you lock in intrinsic with a static hedge, and then roll as the curve moves, each time switching into a better spread. Every switch locks in more, and that is rolling intrinsic. It doesn’t count all the value, but it gives a lower bound that you can bank.
Classic wrong answer. Reporting the intrinsic alone. A tank is a set of spread options on the forward curve, and much of a real one’s value can be in the flexibility. If nothing moves, the extra value is zero, and if volatility is high, it can be the main part.
Follow-up. What limits a real tank? The rate of injection depends on fill level, and the gas needs a minimum working level. Those limits turn this into a dynamic program with fill as a state.
Question 12.17 ★★★ Trader, Risk, QR • bank, hedge fund • experienced
You have sold 10 million barrels at a fixed price, 1 million barrels a year for ten years, and hedge one for one with long front-month futures, rolled each month. Oil falls $20 in a flat move across the curve, and the rate is 5%. What are your margin call and the present value of your gain on the sales? Is this hedge right? Now the curve moves only 30% of the way at the long end, or goes into a contango of 50 cents a month. What then?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.17.
The margin call is $200 million, and the present value of the gain on your sales is about $157 million. So the one-for-one hedge is too big, even in the best case. A tailed hedge would be about 79%.
Flat move. Each year’s barrels gain $20 million, which you get only when you deliver them. At 5%, with the cash arriving mid-year, the total is
against $200 million paid now. So you are $42.6 million worse off on a mark-to-market basis, and the cash call comes at once while the gains stretch over a decade.
Tail the hedge. Scaling the stack to makes it neutral to this move. The cash problem is then smaller, but it stays: you still pay $157 million today against gains that come later. The firm has to have that credit line, signed in advance.
Long end moves 30%. Long-dated prices usually move less than the front. If the average sale gains only $6 instead of $20, you gain about million on the sales and still lose $200 million on the stack. A hedge ratio from a flat move is then wildly too large, so the right ratio should come from how each part of the curve actually moves.
Contango. At 50 cents a month on 10 million barrels, you lose $5 million in every roll, which is about $60 million a year at the start, falling as the stack shrinks.
So the same position can have a sound economic value and still die of funding. A lender who sees margin calls in the first year does not see the gains in the tenth.
Classic wrong answer. Saying “Long oil against a short sale of oil, so it is hedged.” Risk comes from three things: the curve can change shape, the cash comes at different times, and the rolling cost depends on curve shape.
Question 12.18 ★★★ Trader, QR, Analyst • bank, hedge fund • junior, experienced
A producer wants to protect a one-year future at 70, with no premium, using a put at 60 and a call. Rates are zero and volatility is flat at 30%. What call strike makes it costless? With skew, the put is at 36% volatility and the call at 26%. What now? What does the producer give up?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.18.
At flat volatility, the call strike is about 84.30. With skew it falls to about 75.43.
Flat. Under Black with zero rates, the put at 60 and 30% costs 3.74. Solve for the call strike with the same premium: 84.30. So the producer’s revenue is floored at 60 and capped at 84.30.
Skew. The put at 36% costs 5.11, and a call at 26% must collect 5.11, so the strike is 75.43. The structure protects the same floor, and gives up nearly nine dollars of upside, because the producer sells cheap vol and buys dear.
The producer gives up the upside above the call strike. “Costless” means no cash up front. The cost is in that upside, plus the dealer’s margin in the strikes.
At the limit, put and call at the same strike give a synthetic short forward with zero premium.
Classic wrong answer. Treating zero premium as zero cost. Any fair-priced collar has zero expected profit before the dealer’s margin. And with skew against you, the terms get worse without any premium appearing in the deal.
Follow-up. What does the bank do on its side? It holds the short put and long call, so it is long the future’s delta. It sells futures against that and manages the skew exposure it picked up from many such deals.
Question 12.19 ★★★ QR, Trader • bank, hedge fund • experienced
You price a six-month option on a refining spread: payoff with , , volatilities 35% and 30%, and correlation 0.9. Use Kirk’s approximation. Then give a second estimate treating the spread as normal. Which would you trust, and how would you check it?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.19.
Kirk gives about 7.46, and a normal spread model gives about 7.70. A simulation gives 7.47. So Kirk is the one to trust here, and the simulation is how you check.
Kirk. Treat as one lognormal asset with volatility scaled by . Then
And , with from . This gives 7.46. With , it is exact: that is Margrabe.
Normal spread. The dollar volatilities are and , so the spread’s is
a year, and over six months. With forward spread ,
It is about 3% off here, as the true spread between two lognormals is not normal.
Check. Simulate both futures with the given correlation, and take the mean of the payoff. Kirk loses accuracy with high strikes relative to , or very high correlation.
Classic wrong answer. Using a single spread volatility from the first model across strikes. The correlation that matches market spread options changes with strike, so the correlation skew is a real risk in these books, and low-volatility spreads hide it.
Question 12.20 ★★★★ QR, Trader • bank, hedge fund • experienced
You are offered a tolling deal for one month: you pay a fee, and can run a 100 MW plant, heat rate 8, on 22 days for 16 hours a day, buying gas and selling power. The power forward is $42, the gas forward $5. Monthly forward volatilities are 50% and 35%, correlation 0.6, and the month is one month away. Day-ahead volatilities are 90% and 50%, correlation 0.5, and take each day’s option as expiring in of a year. What is the intrinsic value? What is it worth as one monthly decision, and as 22 daily ones? What hedge do you put on against each? What fee would you pay, and why not the top of your range? What happens to the value if the forward is $32?
Answer
Answer to Question 12.20.
The intrinsic value is $70,400. As one monthly decision it is worth about $108,000, and as 22 daily decisions about $196,000. I would pay something well below the daily figure, about $130,000 to $160,000 at most, for reasons below.
Intrinsic. The strike leg is , so the spread is $2. There are MWh. So .
Monthly. Margrabe on 42 against 40, with volatility of the ratio
and , gives $3.07 per MWh, so $108,000.
Daily. Each day, the ratio’s volatility is , at . That gives $5.57 per MWh, so $196,000.
The daily value is larger for two reasons. You can skip the days when the spread is negative, so you hold many options and not one. And day-ahead prices are more volatile than monthly forwards.
Hedges. Against the monthly value, sell MWh of power and buy MMBtu of gas. Against the daily value, the deltas are lower: 21,948 MWh and 145,138 MMBtu. Both are less than a full position since the plant does not run in every state.
The fee. The daily number assumes you can run or not without cost, and capture each day’s price. Against that:
- Each start costs fuel and wear, and minimum run times stop you from taking only the good hours.
- The day-ahead volatility is not monetised by delta-hedging monthly forwards. You hold the difference between monthly and daily exposure as risk, and hedging it needs liquid daily products.
- Outages can leave you short power on the worst day, when your hedge most needs the plant.
- The hourly or daily correlation estimate is very uncertain, and 0.5 against 0.6 moves the value a lot.
So I would pay above the monthly number only for what I could hedge or have reason to believe, and leave a clear margin below the top of the range. The numbers here are illustrations of how to think, not rules.
Forward at $32. Then the spread is . The intrinsic value is zero. The monthly value collapses to about $0.04 per MWh, so about $1,500. The daily value is about $1.16, so about $41,000. Far out of the money, nearly all the value is in day-to-day volatility. So a plant that looks dead on the monthly curve still has real value for the spikes.
Classic wrong answer. Paying the option value computed from one forward volatility for all 22 days. This counts neither the difference between monthly and daily decisions, nor the operating limits.
Follow-up. Who is your natural counterparty on this? A plant owner who wants a fixed income and no market risk. You are buying its optionality, and it is selling you its volatility for cash.